Search This Blog

Tuesday, November 16, 2010

Roadmap for implementation of Indian Accounting Standards converged with IFRS [Press Note 4]

Print Friendly and PDFPrintPrint Friendly and PDFPDF

PRESS RELEASE

Ministry of Corporate Affairs, after wide consultations with all stakeholders and regulators, has drawn up a clear roadmap for implementation of Indian Accounting Standards converged with IFRS. Converged Standards will have to be followed by PhaseI companies w.e.f. 01.04.2011. The Phase I group excludes banks, insurance companies and smaller companies. National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards (NACAS) has almost finalized drafting of the converged accounting standards. Under the Converged Accounting Standards, the Schedule VI will have two parts viz. PartA and PartB. PartA will be as per the existing notified accounting standards and PartB will be based on converged accounting standards. The NACAS has also finalized and recommended PartA and PartB of the ScheduleVI. One of the issues raised by stakeholders is the tax implications in following converged standards. ICAI had set up a Group for identifying tax issues arising on convergence. The group includes nominees from Ministry of Finance. The Group has prepared a draft report identifying certain options which could be adopted to achieve tax neutrality. Secretary, MCA held a meeting with members of the Group, and instructed it to come up in a time bound manner with a specific proposal which will be revenue neutral and acceptable to the Ministry of Finance, while also compatible with IFRS

and meeting the needs of the Corporate sector. The implementation of converged accounting standards with IFRS will go on as per schedule.

Section 10(23C)(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 - Exemptions - Charitable or religious trusts/institutions - Clarification regarding period of validit

Print Friendly and PDFPrintPrint Friendly and PDFPDF

The Board has received various references from the field formations as well as members of public about the period of validity of approvals granted by the Chief Commissioners of Income-tax or Directors General of Income-tax under sub-clauses (iv), (v), (vi) and (via) of section 10(23C) and by the Commissioners of Income-tax or Directors of Income-tax under section 80G(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

2. It has also been noticed by the Board that different field authorities are interpreting the provisions relating to the period of validity of the above approvals in a different manner. The following instructions are accordingly issued for the removal of doubts about the period of validity of various approvals referred to above.

3. Sub-clauses (iv) and (v) of section 10(23C) were amended by Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2006 by insertion of the following proviso to that clause :—

Provided also that any (notification issued by the Central Government under sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v), before the date on which the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2006 receives the assent of the President, shall at any one time, have effect for such assessment year or years, not exceeding three assessment years) (including an assessment year or years commencing before the date on which such notification is issued) as may be specified in the notification.”

The intention behind the insertion of the above proviso was laid out in the relevant portion of the explanatory notes to the Taxation Laws Amendment Act, 2006 which reads as under :

“A need has been felt to dispense with the requirement of periodic renewal of notifications. The requirement of periodic renewal of notifications has been resulting in delays in their renewal.

5.2 In order to overcome delays, the eighth proviso to section 10(23C) has been amended so as to provide that the above mentioned limit of effectivity for three assessment years shall be applicable in respect of notifications issued by the Central Government under sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v) before the date on which Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2006 receives the assent of the President.

5.3 The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2006 received the assent of the President on 13-7-2006. Therefore, on account of the above amendment any notification issued by the Central Government under the said sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v), on or after 13-7-2006 will be valid until withdrawn and there will be no requirement on the part of the assessee to seek renewal of the same after three years.”

The intention of legislature that the approvals under section 10(23C)(iv) and (v) after the cut off date mentioned above would be a one time approval which would be valid until withdrawn, is thus sufficiently clear.

4. Approvals under sub-clauses (vi) and (via) of section 10(23C) are governed by the procedure contained in rule 2CA. Rule 2CA was amended with effect from 1-12-2006, inter alia by substitution of the existing sub-rule 3 by a new provision which is reproduced below :—

“(3) The approval of the Central Board of Direct Taxes or Chief Commissioner or Director General, as the case may be, granted before the 1st day of December, 2006 shall at any one time have effect for a period not exceeding three assessment years.”

Read in isolation, without any further guidance as was given by way of explanatory notes to Finance Act, 2006 in respect of amendment of sub-clauses (iv) and (v) of section 10(23C), the above amendment leaves some scope for doubt about the period of validity of the approval under section 10(23C)(vi) and (via) on or after 1-12-2006. For the removal of doubts if any in this regard, it is clarified that as in the case of approvals under sub-clauses (iv) and (v) of section 10(23C), any approval issued on or after 1-12-2006 under sub-clause (vi) or (via) of that sub-section would also be a one time approval which would be valid till it is withdrawn.

5. As regards approvals granted upto 1-10-2009 under section 80G by the Commissioners of Income-tax/Directors of Income-tax, proviso to section 80G(5)(vi) clarified that any approval shall have effect for such assessment year or years not exceeding five assessment years as may be specified in the approval. The above proviso was deleted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2009. The intent behind the deletion of above proviso as explained in the explanatory memorandum to Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2009 was as under :

“Further as per clause (vi) of sub-section (5) of section 80G of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the institutions or funds to which the donations are made have to be approved by the Commissioner of Income-tax in accordance with the rules prescribed in rule 11AA of the Income-tax Rules, 1962. The proviso to this clause provides that any approval granted under this clause shall have effect for such assessment year or years, not exceeding five assessment years, as may be specified in the approval.

Due to this limitation imposed on the validity of such approvals, the approved institutions or funds have to bear the hardship of getting their approvals renewed from time to time. This is unduly burdensome for the bona fide institutions or funds and also leads to wastage of time and resources of the tax administration in renewing such approvals in a routine manner.

Therefore, it is proposed to omit the proviso to clause (vi) of sub-section (5) of section 80G to provide that the approval once granted shall continue to be valid in perpetuity. Further, the Commissioner will also have the power of withdraw the approval if the Commissioner is satisfied that the activities of such institution or fund are not genuine or are not being carried out in accordance with the objects of the institution or fund. This amendment will take effect from 1st day of October, 2009. Accordingly, existing approvals expiring on or after 1st October, 2009 shall be deemed to have been extended in perpetuity unless specifically withdrawn.”

It appears that some doubts still prevail about the period of validity of approval under section 80G subsequent to 1-10-2009, especially in view of the fact that no corresponding change has been made in Rule 11A(4). To remove any doubts in this regard, it is reiterated that any approval under section 80G(5) on or after 1-10-2009 would be a one time approval which would be valid till it is withdrawn.

[F. No. 197/21/2010-ITA-I]

Saturday, October 23, 2010

E-PAYMENT OF INCOME TAX - CONCEPT AND PROCEDURE

Print Friendly and PDFPrintPrint Friendly and PDFPDF
E-payment of tax is a facility provided to the tax payers to make tax
payments through internet using net-banking facility.

Click on link Below :

Thursday, October 21, 2010

Non-furnishing of “all documents” does not violate principles of natural justice

Print Friendly and PDFPrintPrint Friendly and PDFPDF

Kanwar Natwar Singh
vs.
Directorate of Enforcement

Natwar Singh & Jagat Singh (“Natwar Singh”) were alleged to have dealt in and acquired Foreign Exchange totaling US $ 8,98,027 in respect of some Iraq oil contracts in contravention of FEMA. A notice was issued asking Natwar Singh to show-cause why an inquiry should not be held against them. In response, Natwar Singh demanded that the Adjudicating Authority furnish “copies of all documents in … possession in respect of the instant case, including the 83000 documents allegedly procured by one Virender Dayal“.

The Adjudicating Authority furnished copies of the documents as were relied upon by it but declined to furnish copies of other documents and decided to hold an inquiry in accordance with FEMA. This non-furnishing of “all documents” was challenged by Natwar Singh in the Delhi High Court which dismissed the challenge. Natwar Singh challenged the decision of the High Court in the Supreme Court. HELD, dismissing the appeal:

(i) The extent of applicability of principles of natural justice depends upon the nature of inquiry, the consequences that may visit a person after such inquiry from out of the decision pursuant to such inquiry. The right to fair hearing is a guaranteed right. Every person before an Authority exercising the adjudicatory powers has a right to know the evidence to be used against him. Dhakeswari Cotton Mills Ltd. vs. CIT 26 ITR 775 (SC) followed;

(ii) However, the principles of natural justice do not require supply of documents upon which no reliance has been placed by the Authority to set the law into motion. Supply of relied on documents based on which the law has been set into motion would meet the requirements of principles of natural justice;

(iii) The concept of fairness is not a one way street. The principles of natural justice are not intended to operate as roadblocks to obstruct statutory inquiries. Duty of adequate disclosure is only an additional procedural safeguard in order to ensure the attainment of the fairness and it has its own limitations. The extent of its applicability depends upon the statutory framework;

(iv) The only object of Natwar Singh’s unreasonable insistence for supply of all documents was obviously to obstruct the proceedings and he has been able to achieve that object as is evident from the fact that the inquiry initiated as early as in the year 2006 still did not even commence;

(v) Also: Observations of Courts are not to be read as Euclid’s theorems nor as provisions of the statute. The observations must be read in the context in which they appear. A line or a word in a judgment cannot be read in isolation or as if interpreting a statutory provision to impute a different meaning to the observations.

Provident Fund Payments u/s. 43B

Print Friendly and PDFPrintPrint Friendly and PDFPDF

PF Payments Under Section 43B

1. Issue for Consideration :

1.1 S.43B of the Income-Tax Act provides that certain expenditures, which would otherwise have been allowable as deductions in computing the total income under the Income-tax Act, shall be allowed as deduction only in the year of actual payment of such items by the assessee notwithstanding the method of accounting followed by the assessee. These expenditures are listed in clauses (a) to (f) of the said Section Clause (b) of the said Section refers to the sums payable by an employer by way of contribution to any Provident Fund, Superannuation Fund, Gratuity Fund, or any other fund for the welfare of employees (‘welfare dues’). Accordingly, the deduction of welfare dues is allowed only where payment of such expenditure is actually made.

1.2 Till assessment year 2003-04, the second proviso to S.43B provided that no deduction of welfare dues covered by the said clause (b) would be allowed unless such sum had actually been paid on or before the due date as defined in the Explanation to S.36(1)(va), i.e., the due date for payment of such welfare dues under the relevant applicable law. From assessment year 2004-05, the second proviso to S.43B has been omitted, and welfaredues covered by clause (b) were brought into the purview of the first proviso, which provides that the disallowance would not operate if the sums are paid on or before the due date of filing of the Income-tax return of the year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred, and proof of such payment was furnished along with the return.

1.3 A dispute has arisen as to whether this amendment was applicable to all pending matters, and therefore applied retrospectively, or whether it applied prospectively from assessment year 2004-05 onwards. While the Bombay High Court has held that the amendment would apply prospectively, the Delhi and Madras High Courts have taken the view that the amendment applied retrospectively.

2. Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana’s case :

2.1 The issue came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana Ltd. 298 ITR 149.

2.2 In this case, pertaining to assessment years 1991-92 and 1994-95, the assessee had made payments of provident fund dues before the due date of filing of its return of income, but beyond the due date stipulated under the Provident Fund Act. The amounts had been disallowed by the Assessing Officer, but the assessee’s appeal against such disallowance had been allowed by the Commissioner (Appeals). The Tribunal had also upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

2.3 Before the Bombay High Court, it was argued on behalf of the Revenue that the deletion of the second proviso to S.43B with effect from 1st April 2004 only meant that the relaxation in S.43B, insofar as employer’s contribution was concerned, would be governed by the first proviso to S.43B from 1st April 2004 only.

2.4 On behalf of the assessee, it was submitted that the amendment was curative and was resorted to for the purpose of removing the hardship caused by the second proviso. A similar amendment had been made in relation to clause (a) relating to tax, duty, cess and fees earlier, and in relation to such amendment, the Supreme Court, in the case of Allied Motors (P) Ltd. vs. CIT 224 ITR 677, had held the amendment to be curative and retrospective. It was argued that the proviso which was inserted to remedy the unintended consequences and to make the provision workable, the proviso which supplied an obvious omission in the Section and was required to be read into the Section to give the Section a reasonable interpretation, was required to be treated as retrospective in operation, so that a reasonable interpretation could be given to the Section as a whole.

2.5 The Bombay High Court went through the history of S.43B and the amendments carried out to it from time to time. It analysed the decision of the Supreme Court in Allied Motors case. It noted that when the two provisos to S.43 B were added, payments under clause (b) and payments under other clauses of S.43B were treated as two different classes. TheFinance Act, 1989 substituted the second proviso, noting certain hardships that were being occasioned by the operation of that proviso. The BombayHigh Court noted that, in its wisdom, the Parliament chose not to delete the second proviso but substituted it, and therefore intended that S.43B(b) should be treated as a class by itself distinct from the other sub-Sections. The second proviso was omitted based on the recommendations of the Kelkar Committee Report, which responded to representation by trade and industry that the delayed payment of statutory liability related to labour should be accorded the same treatment as the delayed payment of taxes and interest.

2.6 The Bombay High Court noted the decision of the Madras High Court in CIT vs. Synergy Financial Exchange Ltd., 288 ITR 366, where the MadrasHigh Court held that the amendment was not retrospective, on the basis that fiscal legislation imposing liability is generally governed by normal presumption that it is not retrospective and that in interpreting the statute, the Courts, in the first instance, have to consider the plain written language of the statute. If on so reading, it is not possible to give effect to the intent of the Parliament, then the Courts resort to purposeful interpretation to give effect to that intent. The Bombay High Court also (inadvertently) noted thedecision of the Assam High Court in George Williamson (Assam) Ltd. vs. CIT, 284 ITR 619 as rejecting the contention that the amendment should be read as retrospective, though the Assam High Court in that case upheld the contention of the assessee for allowing deduction for the payments on or before the due date of filing of the return of income.

2.7 The Bombay High Court noted that the amendment was madeapplicable from the assessment year 2004-05. It observed that in interpreting statutory provisions, the Court also considered the mischief rule, namely, what was the state of law before the act or the amendment, and what was the mischief that the Act or the amendment sought to avoid. From the normal aids to construction, the Court observed that the only mischief that the amendment if at all sought to obviate was the need to eliminate the procedural complexities, reduce paperwork, simplify tax administration and to enhance efficiency and also integrate such tax proposals as the system could at present absorb, and acceptance of the representations made by trade and industry that they should not be denied the benefit of deductions on account of delayed payment of taxes and interest.

2.8 According to the Bombay High Court, the law as it stood earlier was that in relation to the employer’s contribution to provident fund, if it was not paid within the due date, was not eligible for deduction. According to theHigh Court, this position had been remedied, and the remedial measure had been made applicable from assessment year 2004-05. The Bombay High Court therefore took the view that it could not be said that the amendment was retrospective.

2.9 Subsequent to this decision of the Bombay High Court, the decision of the Assam High Court in George Williamson’s case went up to theSupreme Court in a special leave petition as CIT vs. Vinay Cement Ltd. 213 CTR 268. In a short five-line order, the Supreme Court noted that they were concerned with the law as it stood prior to the amendment of Section 43 B, that in the circumstances the assessee was entitled to claim the benefit under Section 43 B for that period, particularly in view of the fact that he had contributed to Provident Fund before filing of the return, and dismissed the special leave petition.

2.10 Subsequent to this decision of the Supreme Court, the matter again came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Pamwi Tissues Ltd. 215 CTR 150, relating to assessment year 1990-91. In this case, when the attention of the Bombay High Court was drawn to the dismissal of the special leave petition by the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case, it observed that the dismissal of the special leave petition by the Supreme Court cannot be said to be the law decided. According to the Bombay High Court, for a judgment to be a precedent, it must contain the three basic postulates — a finding of material facts, direct and inferential, statements of the principles of law applicable to the legal problems disclosed by the facts, and judgment based on the individual effect of the above. The Bombay High Court therefore followed its earlierdecision in the case of Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana, holding that Provident Fund payment made after the due date under the PF Act but before the due date of filing of the return of income, were not allowable.

3. Nexus Computer’s case :

3.1 The issue again recently came up before the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Nexus Computer (P) Ltd., 177 Taxman 202.

3.2 In this case pertaining to assessment year 2000-01, the attention of the Madras High Court was drawn by the Revenue to its earlier decision in the case of Synergy Financial Exchange (Supra), wherein it had held that the amendment was not retrospective, and by the assessee, to the decision of the Assam High Court in George Williamson’s case and the dismissal of the special leave petition by the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case.

3.3 The Madras High Court in that case (Nexus Computers)noted that the order of the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case was a speaking order, which gave reasons for rejecting the special leave petition, and that the reasoning given in the dismissal of the special leave petition in that case would be binding on it as the law declared by the Apex Court under article 141 of the Constitution. Therefore, the Madras High Court held that the Provident Fund payments would be allowable under Section 43 B.

3.4 The issue also came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Dharmendra Sharma, 297 ITR 320, in relation to assessment year 2001-02, and in CIT vs. P.M. Electronics Ltd., 177 Taxman 1. The Delhi High Court took note of the decisions of the Madras High Court in Synergy Financial Exchange, the Bombay High Court in Pamwi Tissues, the Supreme Court in dismissing the special leave petition in Vinay Cement’s case, and the Madras High Court in Nexus Computer’s case. The Delhi High Court also observed that judicial discipline required it to follow the view of the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case, and hold the amendment to be retrospective. The Delhi High Court therefore disagreed with the approach adopted by the Bombay High Court in Pamwi Tissues case.

4. Observations :

4.1 The issue of whether the amendment is retrospective in operation or not can be for the time being concluded on examination of the true effect of the Supreme Court order in Vinay Cement’s case, delivered while dismissing the special leave petition. As observed by the Bombay High Court, the question is whether it was a dismissal on merits, laying down a binding precedent. If the decision of the Supreme Court is held to have been delivered on merits, it would be the law of the land and be binding on the Courts; if not, the Courts would be empowered to examine the issue independently.

4.2 As observed by the Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed vs. State of Kerala, 119 STC 505 :

“If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order, i.e., gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications. Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme Court within the meaning of article 141 of the Constitution. Secondly, other than a declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order are the findings recorded by the Supreme Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceeding subsequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the Apex Court of the country. But, this does not amount to saying that the order of the Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of the Supreme Court rejecting special leave petition or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.”

4.3 Reading the order of the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case certainly gives the impression that though the order is short, the Supreme Court has applied its mind to the issue at stake while dismissing the petition, and dismissed it on merits, and not merely on technical grounds or as not maintainable. The order therefore seems to set a binding precedent, which all High Courts ought to have followed.

4.4 Further, it is no doubt true that the operation of the proviso gave rise to absurd situations where large amounts were disallowed on account of trivial delays of a few days, even when there was reasonable cause for making delayed payments of labour welfare dues. It does seem rather harsh to take the view that such disallowance was always intended by the Legislature.

4.5 The better view of the matter is therefore the view of the Delhi and Madras High Courts that the omission of the second proviso to S.43B is retrospective in operation, and applied to all pending matters as on the date of the amendment.

BSE, NSE launches special pre-open trading session

Print Friendly and PDFPrintPrint Friendly and PDFPDF

The country’s two premier bourses – National Stock Exchange andBombay Stock Exchange – on Monday introduced the 15-minute special pre-open trading session, a mechanism under which investorscan bid for stocks before themarket opens.

The mechanism, known as ‘pre-open session call auction’, lasted for 15 minutes (from 9:00-9:15 am). While, this system has been started to reduce the quantum of volatility – typically visible in the first few minutes of trade – but going by the first day’s action this special session was more volatile than the normal trading session.

In the first 15 minutes, investors can place orders for eight minutes on the basis of which the exchanges will determine the rates at which trading will happen.

As per the ‘pre-open session call auction trend’, the National Stock ExchangeNifty was signaling a firm market but when bourses started the normal trading the benchmark indices swung into the red.

Besides, the movement of Bombay Stock Exchange benchmark Sensex and the NSE barometer Nifty was not in tandem. Usually, in normal session, these two indices move in tandem with each other.

“Currently market players in India are not very familiar with this system and it will take some time to get stabilised. It is a very good attempt in Indian markets, as it ensures the integration with international markets,” SMC Global Securities Strategist Jagannadham Thunuguntla said.

At 11:25 am, the Sensex was quoting at 19,916.66, down by 208.39 points. The wide-based Nifty too was in the red and was trading at 5,999.20, down by 1.05 per cent.

Market experts believe that the introduction of pre-open session assumes special significance, especially, in situations when there is any major event or announcement comes overnight before market opens.

Such special events may be such as merger and acquisition announcements, open offers, delistings, debt-restructurings, credit-rating downgrades or any rumours regarding any of such events, they said.

On a normal day with no major event before 9:00 AM, this pre-open session may appear to be a non-event and a routine exercise.

However, on a day when there is any major outcome before the market hours this mechanism assumes special significance, Thunuguntla said.

Capital market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India had given its green signal for the introduction of pre- open session call auction on the bourses in July this year.

In a call auction practice, participants indicate their willingness to buy or sell units of a security by placing an order for a number of units at the prevailing pricebefore the opening of trade.

The introduction of pre-open session with a call auction mechanism is expected to reduce the quantum of volatility, typically visible in the first few minutes of trade, analysts said.

Initially the call auction session will be applicable for those stocks, which are the part of Sensex and Nifty. Sensex, the benchmark index of BSE, comprises of 30 blue-chip stocks, while Nifty – the NSE barometer- lists 50 scrips.

Infrastructure bonds an attractive option for tax gains

Print Friendly and PDFPrintPrint Friendly and PDFPDF

Infrastructure bonds are the latest avenue for investors looking to park funds in debt instruments. A number of companies have announced plans to raise money through this route. While IFCI has already raised Rs 100 crore, this is the first time after additional tax breaks for investments in infrastructure bonds were announced that an amount over Rs 4,000 crore is being raised.

While IDFC and L&T Infrastructure issues are open for subscription, PFC and LIC are the next in line. Here’s a snapshot of what these issues have in store for investors.

QUICK FACTS

IDFC

L&T Infra

Coupon (%)

7.5, 8

7.5,7.75

Duration (years)

10

10

Buyback/call option

yes*

yes

Listing

NSE & BSE

NSE

Issue size (Rs Crores)

3400

700

Tax benefit

Yes

Yes

Lock in period (years)

5

5

Loans against bonds

NA

NA

*Series3 and 4 bonds only

EVENLY MATCHED

Investor tax slab

Yield to investors on maturity*

(In %)

IDFC

L&T Infra

10.3

8.67

8.68

20.6

10.01

10.02

30.9

11.55

11.56

* 7.5% 10 yr cumulative bonds

Tax Benefits

Under Section 80CCF, any individual or Hindu undivided family can invest up to Rs 20,000 in infrastructure bonds and avail of tax benefits. This will be over the Rs 1-lakh deduction allowed under Section 80C. So, an investor in the tax bracket of 30 per cent can save an additional Rs 6,000, while those in the lower tax bracket can save Rs 2,000. Moreover, infrastructure bonds offer stability of fixed returns and are reasonably safe.

How they Compare

Other high yielding instruments which help save tax, include employee provident fund (returning 9.5 per cent for financial year 2011), public provident funds (8 per cent) and five-year fixed deposits. PPF gives higher returns that are non-taxable although liquidity is not as good as the bond or a fixed deposit. Unlike PPF and EPF, interest income is taxable for infrastructure bonds.

A debt mutual fund gives good returns, don’t get any tax breaks and are more risky. According to Value Research, a mutual fund rating agency, debt-oriented hybrid funds have returned 10.68 per cent in the last one year. While the returns on EPF and PPF are higher, infrastructure bonds score over instruments likepost office schemes which give similar returns but don’t have tax benefits. The key benefits for the investors in infrastructure bonds are breaks on the Rs 20,000 additional investment, higher yields and good liquidity.

Liquidity

The infrastructure bonds have a maturity of 10 years but a lock-in period of five years. The investor can ask the issuer to buy back his/her bonds after the lock-in period. Alternatively, the investor can choose to trade these in stock exchanges. According to Dwijendra Srivastava, head, fixed income, Sundaram BNP Paribas AMC, “Listing is more to do with being more tradeable on exchanges and there may not be any listing gains.

Historically, retail bonds trade at par on exchanges. Trading done on exchanges will not be eligible for tax benefits as it will not meet the five-year lock-in requirement. However, investors looking to clock some gains can subscribe to bonds in addition to Rs 20,000 and trade in such excess units. Historically, volumes have been thin in retail bonds trading and we don’t expect much trading activity in these bonds”.